Using the sample differences in effect converts a two-sample problem into a single sample of differences - Essay Prowess

Using the sample differences in effect converts a two-sample problem into a single sample of differences


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QNT561 week5 more questions

Topic 6

Here is a Khan video that may assist students with z test and t test.

Topic 7

Message expanded.Message readRe: Independent and Dependent Samples

posted by Ferdinand  , Dec 07, 2018, 8:34 PM

Hi Everyone,

Based on what is presented in the text – I took away that the comparison involving dependent samples is a bit more involved.  When comparing dependent samples and using the matched pairs test, there is first the requirement that the two samples be of the same size.  This is not the case with independent samples where sample sizes can and are often different with the sample sizes being used as the basis in the applicable z and t formulas.  The t formula when working with dependent samples using the sample difference instead of sample values that are used in the t formula for independent samples.  Using the sample differences in effect converts a two-sample problem into a single sample of differences.  


Black, Ken. Business Statistics: For Contemporary Decision Making, 9th Edition. Wiley, 2016-09-26. VitalBook file.

Response to his comments.

Topic 8

Message expanded.Message unreadRe: Beverage Consumption: America vs. Europe

posted by Ferdinand Morales , Dec 07, 2018, 7:46 PM

Hi Everyone,

Based on assuming that what is provided is only sample data, we would need to understand how many people where in the respective samples and also the value for the α in order to conduct a hypothesis test to understand if there is a difference in the two population means of consumption of various beverages between Americans and Europeans.  In reviewing all of the comments and posts on why Americans consume more carbonated soda pop and beer than Europeans, I have to say I agree with most of them.  

In my personal opinion, I think that one of the reasons that Europeans consume less carbonated soda pop is because they have taken a much more aggressive posture with respect to developing and enforcing policies that disincentivize the production of sugary drinks.  As an example, at the beginning of this year Britain began a national soda tax that imposes a graduated tax (based on ounces in drink and sugar per ounce) on soda makers (Dewey, 2018).  The tax levy is pretty substantial.  As an example, the tax for a drink that has 12 to 19 grams of sugar per eight-ounce can, is roughly 6 cents per serving. This rate increases with drinks with a higher sugar content.  If you figure that the Pepsi recipe in America calls for 28 grams of sugar per eight-ounce can, you can get a sense of how this would play out here in America.  There would likely be a revolt by the soda makers.    The British soda tax so far has been considered a success with Coca-Cola and Nestle UK and other regional soda makers changing their recipes to cut sugar by more than 40%.

While there are some cities in the United States that have imposed soda taxes, the approach is different here in the US.  The current approach is to pass the tax onto those who consume the beverages but not those who make them.  Hence, the goals in the US and Europe are very different.  Europe is targeting the production of sugary drinks and in doing so bringing down consumption of sugar in a more aggressive manner.  In the United States, there is no tax on the production of sugary drinks but on the consumption and on a very small scale.  As of 2017, there were only 6 cities in the US that had soda taxes with three of the cities being in one state, California (Bird, 2018).


Bird, B. (2018, November). What Is the Soda Tax and Which Cities Have One?. The Balance, (), . Retrieved from

Dewey, C. (2018, March). Why the British soda tax might work better than any of the soda taxes that came before. The Washington Post, (), . Retrieved from

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